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February 11, 2017


  webmaster       February 11, 2017

1.    Which is the largest excretory organ of the body
a.    lungs
b.    skin
c.    liver
d.    none of these
2.    The brain is enclosed in a bony case called
a.    diaphragam
b.    vertebral column
c.    cranium
d.    vertebrae
3.    Which is the bone that is present in forelimb
a.    radius
b.    femur
c.    ribs
d.    sternum
4.    Which one is herbivore
a.    cat
b.    dog
c.    cow
d.    lion
5.    Which structure helps in transport of water in plants
a.    phloem
b.    leaf
c.    bark
d.    xylem
6.    The organisms that can make their own food are called
a.    producers
b.    consumers
c.    secondary consumers
d.    decomposers
7.    Bacteria are
a.    eukaryotes
b.    prokaryotes
c.    non-living
d.    none of these
8.    Bile juice is secreted by
a.    pancreas
b.    stomach
c.    intestine

d.      gall bladder
9.    Which part of the blood cells provide immunity
a.    RBC
b.    WBC
c.    platelet
d.    blood plasma
10.    Which structure prevent water loss in plants
a.    cuticle
b.    bark
c.    mesophyll
d.    leaf
11.    DNA structure was first described by
a.    Pasteur
b.    Robert Koch
c.    Watson and Crick
d.    Carlous Linnaues
12.    Pollination is best defined as
a.    germination of pollen grains
b.    transfer of pollen from anther to stigma
c.    formation of pollen grains
d.    none of these
13.    Movement of cell against concentration gradient is called
a.    active transport
b.    osmosis
c.    diffusion
d.    both b and c
14.    One of the following is not a function of bones
a.    support
b.    production of blood cells
c.    protein synthesis
d.    muscle attachment
15.    Plants absorb most part of water needed by them through their
a.    stem
b.    root hairs
c.    leaf
d.    bark
16.    What is the 31st term of the sequence: 1, 4, 7, 10, .... ?
a.    90
b.    91
c.    92

d.      93

17. What is the 11th term of the sequence: ^-^,m-n,m,
a.    m+n
b.    m-n
c.    m+6n
d.    m+Sn
= ?
a.    12
b.    22
c.    32
d.    42


a.    0
b.    1
c.    10
d.    100
a.    n!
b.    (n - 3)!
c.    n(n-1)(n-2)
d.    n(n-1)(n-2)(n-3)
7! 6!
21. 7x6=?
c.    6!
d.    7!


a.    (n - 3)!
b.    (n - 5)!
c.    (n-3)(n-4)
d.    (n-3)(n-4)(n-5)

23.The last European country engaged in trade with India was– (A) Portugal (B) Holland (C) France (D) England
24.    The sea route to India and East Asia was discovered after the capture of
Constantinopole by the–
(A) Arabs (B) Turks (C) Tatars (D) Mongols
25.    The pioneer of Indian Renaissance was–
(A) Swami Vivekanand (B) Swami Dayanand Saraswati (C) Dadabhai Nauroji (D) Raja Ram Mohan Roy
26.    The Headquarter of the International Court is situated at–
(A) New York (B) Hague
(C) Geneva (D) Paris
27.    The invention of craft of spinning and weaving is associated with–
(A) Middle Stone Age (B) Early Stone age
(C) Neolithic Age (D) Bronze Age
28.    The result of the Industrial Revolution was a creation of a new section of society distinctly
(A) Land Lords (B) Clergymen (C) Capitalists (D) Engineers
29.    In childhood Jahangir was called by the name–
(A) Farid (B) Khurram
(C) Khusrau (D) Salim
30.    The Historians have truely commented that Jahangir married Nur Jahan after the
planned murder of Sher Afgan–
(A)    Jahangir took action against Sher Afgan without any cause
(B)    Jahangir wanted to appoint Man Singh in place of Sher Afgan
(C)    After the death of her husband NurJhan was kept in a newly built palace instead of keeping with her brother and father
(D)    Nur Jahan wrote a letter to Jahangir to do this
31.    Jahangir handed over his all administration to Nur Jahan only for a cup of wine and a
dish of Soup. This statement shows that–
(A)    Nur Jahan made Jahangir debauch
(B)    She completely took over charge of administration for herself
(C)    She accompanied Jahangir in drinking
(D)    She had completely befooled Jahangir

32.    The son-in-law of Nur Jahan was–
(A) Shaharyar (B) Khurram
(C) Khusro (D) Mahammad Ismial
33.    The Draft of Constitution of India was framed under the chairmanship of–
(A) Pt. Jawahar Lal Nehru (B) Dr. Bhim Rao Ambedkar
(C) Dr. Rajendra Prasad (D) Ballabh Bhai Patel
34.    There is no importance of fundamental rights in Indian Constitution if it has not provided–
(A) Right to constitutional remedy (B) Right of equality
(C) Right of property (D) Right of amendment in constitution
35.    The President can be removed from his office before the expiry of his period by–
(A)    The Prime Minister's demand for his resignation
(B)    The Parliament if he is found guilty through impeachment against him
(C)    The decision of Cabinet
(D)    The decision of Supreme Court
36.    The Prime Minister nominated by the President must be–
(A)    The Leader of the party having support of majority of members in the Lok Sabha
(B)    Elected Leader of Rajya Sabha
(C)    The Senior most member of Lok Sabha
(D)    A deserving candidate according to the sweet will of President
37.    The bill passed by the Parliament can be enforced as law with the signature of–
(A) The Speaker of Lok Sabha (B) The Chairman of Rajya Sabha
(C) The President of India (D) The Prime Minister
38.    The first President of the All India Muslim League was–
(A) Nawab Viqar-ul-Mulk (B) Nawab Mohsin-ul-Mulk
(C) Hakim Ajmal Khan (D) Aga Khan
39.    On August 6, 1945, the first atom bomb was dropped at–
(A) Hiroshima (B) Tokyo
(C) Nagasaki (D) Yakohama
40.    Which one of the following was the pioneer of the 'Age of Discovery', who sailed down
the Southern Coast of Africa as far as the Cape of Good Hope?
(A) Vasco-de-Gama (B) Bartholomew Diaz (C) Christopher Colombus (D) Magellan
41. Beethoven was born in– (A) Germany (B) Italy (C) France (D) Denmark

42. The community farm established by Mahatma Gandhi near Johnnesburg in 1910 was
(A) Gandhi Ashram (B) Sevagram
(C) Phoenix Settlement (D) Tolstoy Farm
43.Which of the following taxes is a progressive tax?
a)    income tax
b)    custom tax
c)    sales tax
d)    excise duty
44.    In which year was the policy of population planning adopted by the government of India?
a)    1947
b)    1956
c)    1952
d)    1962
45.    Which of the following taxes is/are levied by the Union and collected and appropriated by
the states?
a)    stamp duties
b)    passenger and good tax
c)    estate duty
d)    taxes on newspapers
46.    The terms TRIPS and TRIMS are related to
a)    NAFTA
b)    SAPTA
c)    EFTA
d)    GATT
47.    In which year was the new liberalized industrial policy announced in India?
a)    1989
b)    1990
c)    1991
d)    1992
48. During which Five Year Plan was the annual growth rate of National Income the lowest?
a)    second plan
b)    third plan
c)    fifth plan
d)    sixth plan

49.    Chelliah Committee of 1992 deals with the overhauling of our
a)    public sector undertakings
b)    financial system
c)    tax system
d)    patents and copyrights
50.    Economic planning is an essential feature of
a)    capitalist economy
b)    socialist economy
c)    mixed economy
d)    dual economy
51.    Which among the following is an essential characteristic of mixed economy?
a)    co-existence of small scale and large scale industries
b)    co-existence of private and public sectors
c)    assigning equal importance to both agriculture and heavy industries
d)    co-existence of the rich and the poor
52.    What is the value of goods and services produced in a country within a year called?
a)    National income at factor cost
b)    net national output
c)    net national product at market prices
d)    gross national product at market prices
53.    Which of the following deals with economic offences?
a)    MISA
b)    NSA
c)    TADA
54.    In India, inflation is measured by
a)    wholesale price index number
b)    consumer price index for urban non-manual workers
c)    consumer price index for agricultural workers
d)    national income deflation
55.    Which of the following programs meets the credit needs of poor women?
a)    Mahila Samriddhi Yojna
b)    Rashtriya Mahila Kosh
c)    Indira Mahila Yojna
d)    Mahila Samakhya Programme

56.    National income is the
a)    Net National Product at Market price
b)    Net National product at factor coast
c)    net domestic product at market price
d)    net domestic product at factor cost
57.    Which of the following programs aims at the promotion of savings among rural women?
a)    Rashtriya Mahila Kosh
b)    Mahila Samriddhi Yojna
c)    Indira Mahila Yojna
d)    Javhar Rozgar Yojna
58.    What happens to marginal cost when average cost increases
a)    Marginal cost is below average cost
b)    Marginal cost is above average cost
c)    Marginal cost is equal to average variable cost
d)    Marginal cost is equal to average cost
59.    Development means economic growth with
a)    price stability
b)    social change
c)    inflation
d)    deflation
60.    Which one of the following is more effective in controlling prices in the long run?
a)    decrease in production
b)    increase in production
c)    decrease in the rate of interest
d)    increase in the rate of employment
61.    Through open market operations, the RBI purchase and sell
a)    foreign exchange
b)    gold
c)    government securities
d)    all of these
62.    A firm is said to be of optimum size when
a)    average total cost is at a minimum
b)    marginal cost is at a minimum
c)    marginal cost is equal to marginal revenue
d)    the firm is maximizing its profit

63.    All revenues received, loans raised and money received in repayment of loans by the
Union government go into
a)    Public account of India
b)    Contingency fund of India
c)    Consolidated fund of India
d)    None of the above
64.    The law of demand states that
a)    demand increases with increase in income
b)    when income and prices rise, the demand also rises
c)    when price falls, demand increases
d)    when price increases, demand increases
65.    The balance of payment comprises
a)    a current account of goods and services only
b)    a capital account of financial assets only
c)    official settlement accounts only
d)    all of these
66.    What is Net National Product?
a)    The money value of final goods and services produced annually in the economy
b)    The money value of annual service generation in the economy
c)    The money value of tangible goods produced annually in the economy
d)    The money value of tangible goods available in the economy
67.    Other things being equal, what causes a decrease in demand?
a)    rise in the price of the substitute
b)    fall in the price of the commodity
c)    rise in the income of the consumer
d)    rise in the price of the commodity
68.    Deflation is
a)    deficit budget
b)    reduction in taxation
c)    contraction in volume of money or credit that results in a decline of price level
d)    increase in public expenditure
69.    Bank rate means
a)    interest rate charged by moneylenders
b)    interest rate charged by scheduled banks
c)    rate of profit of the banking institution
d)    the official rate of interest charged by the central bank of the country

70.    Which agency estimates the national income of India?
a)    Reserve Bank of India
b)    Planning Commission
c)    Ministry of Finance
d)    Central Statistical Organization
71.    What is Gross National Product?
a)    the total output of goods and services produced by the country’s economy
b)    the total domestic and foreign output claimed by residents of the country
c)    the sum of gross domestic product and investment
d)    national income minus national expenditure
72.    The Government of India acquired the ownership and control of major banks in 1969
whose deposits were not less than
a)    Rs    40    crore
b)    Rs    50    crore
c)    Rs    60    crore
d)    Rs    80    crore
73.    What are costs which vary with output called?
a)    overhead costs
b)    indirect costs
c)    prime costs
d)    all of the above
74.    Which of the following is known as plastic money?
a)    bearer cheques
b)    credit cards
c)    demand drafts
d)    gift cheques
75.    To get the Net National Product, we deduct what from the Gross National Product?
a)    direct taxes
b)    imports
c)    interim payments
d)    loss
76.    What is the main purpose of currency?
a)    standard of postponed payments
b)    standard of money
c)    medium of exchange
d)    none of these

77. What does devaluation of a currency mean?
a)    decrease in the internal value of money
b)    decrease in the external value of money
c)    decrease both in the external and internal values of money
d)    none of these
78.Which of the following is not a direct tax?
a)    estate duty
b)    agricultural income tax
c)    state excise
d)    corporation tax
79.    Which one of the following was set up during the Seventh Five Year Plan to help the low
income groups?
a)    NABARD
b)    Regional rural bank
c)    National Housing Bank
d)    UTI Bank
80.    The launching of five year plans in India saw the introduction of
a)    mixed economy
b)    socialist economy
c)    capitalist economy
d)    closed economy
81.    Land development banks in India are owned by the
a)    RBI
b)    State governments
c)    Commercial banks
d)    Cooperative societies
82.    Which of the following taxes is levied and collected by the union, but assigned to the
a)    sales tax
b)    octroi
c)    excise
d)    consignment tax
83. On the south side, India is bounded by the Indian Ocean, by the Arabian Sea on the southwest and the ……………..on the southeast.

A)    Brahmaputra
B)    GANT
C)    Bay of Bengal
D)    None of Above
84.The Lakshadweep and the Andaman & Nicobar Islands in India are classified as …………..
A)    LAC
B)    UT (union territories)
C)    States
D)    Deserts
85.The ………………. is the effective border between India and the People’s Republic of China.
A)    LOC
B)    LAC
C)    LOG
D)    None of Above
86.The first British colony was in ……… with English East India Company at Surat.
A)    1616
B)    1617
C)    1618
D)    1619

87.The Rann of Kutch is a marshy region located in northwestern Gujarat and the bordering Sindh province of ……………..
A)    Pakistan
B)    Bangladesh
C)    Nepal
D)    Afghanistan
88.The Himalayan range is considered as the world’s highest mountain range, with its tallest peak …………….. on the Nepal–China border.
A)    Hindu Kush
B)    Mt. Everest
C)    Tirich Mir
D)    Kunlun
89.Many cities in India have undergone place name changes such as Baroda being renamed to ……
A)    Badodara
B)    Varanasi
C)    Vadodara
D)    Baranasi
90.The Brahmaputra is also called ……………………
A)    Burlung-Buthur
B)    Tsangpo-Brahmaputra
C)    Yarlung Tsangpo
D)    All of Above

91.which is the first port that was developed after independence in Gujrat State.
A)    Kutch
B)    Smarla
C)    Kandla
D)    Porbandhar
92.……………. is the smallest state of India.
A)    Goa
B)    Andaman Nicobar
C)    Port Blair
D)    Kuri
93.Southern India is mostly a Deccan Plateau, which is separated from northern plain by the
A)    Himalayan mountains
B)    Vindhya mountains
C)    Satpura hills
D)    Mount Everest
94.……………… are tribes of Andaman and Nicobar Islands.
A)    Munda
B)    Kurra
C)    Onges

 D) None of Above
95.This program was started in 1977-78 with the main aim of controlling desertification, restoring ecological balance and creating conditions to improve the economic level of people in desert areas.
A)    Desert Peoples Programme (DPP)
B)    Desert Development Programme (DDP)
C)    Desert Welfare Programme (DWP)
D)    Desert Samadhaan Programme (DSP)
96.This is a strait between the Tamil Nadu state and the Mannar district of the Northern Province of the island nation of Sri Lanka.
A)    Palk Strait
B)    Walk Strait
C)    Talk Strait
D)    Balk Strait
97.Which of the following countries share longest land boundary with india?
A)    Bangladesh
B)    Nepal
C)    Bhutan
D)    None of Above
98.The length of river Brahmaputra is
A)    3900 KM
B)    4900 KM
C)    8900 KM

D) 2900 KM
99.Consider the following statements and identify the right ones:
I.    The peninsular block is rigid and stable in its geological structure.
II.    The Himalayas are young, weak and flexible in its geological structure.
a.    I only
b.    II only
c.    Both
d.    None
100. The origin of Himalayas can best be explained by
a.    Continental Drift Theory
b.    Ocean Floor Mapping
c.    Sea Floor Spreading
d.    Theory of Plate Tectonics
101.Consider the following statements about Himalayas and identify the right ones.
I.    They act as a climate divide.
II.    They do not play an important role in the phenomenon of Monsoon rainfall in Indian Sub continent.
a.    I only
b.    II only
c.    Both
d.    None
102. Arrange the following Himalayan sub-divisions from west to east I. Kashmir Himalayas

II.    Himachal Himalayas
III.    Darjeeling Himalayas
IV.    Arunachal Himalayas
a.    I,II,III,IV
b.    IV,III,II,I
c.    I,II,IV,III
d.    II,III,IV,I
103.    Consider the following statements and identify the right ones:
I.    The Greater Himalayas are known for their profound continuity.
II.    The Lesser Himalayas are characterized by their broadness and longitudinal valleys.
III.    The Shiwalik is the outer Himalayas which is youngest in the origin.
a.    I and II only
b.    II and III only
c.    None
d.    All
104.    Match the following passes and mountain ranges.
I.    Zoji La      A.Pir Panjal
II.    Photu la      B. Ladhakh
III.    Banihal      C.Great Himalayas
IV.    Khardung la      D.Zaskar

105.    Consider the following statements:
Assertion (A): Jhelum River is still in its youth stage and yet forms meanders.
Reason (R): The meanders in Jhelum River are caused by the local base level provided by the Dal lake.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
a.    Both A and R are true, but R is not correct explanation of A.
b.    Both A and R are true, but R is the correct explanation of A.
c.    A is true, but R is false.
d.    A is false, but R is true.
106.    What are the suitable conditions for tea plantations which is prevalent in Darjeeling Himalayas?
I.    Moderate Slope
II.    Thick soil cover
III.    High Rainfall
IV.    Adequate sunshine
a.    I,II and IV only
b.    All
c.    I and II only
d.    I,II and III only
107.    The rivers of Arunachal Himalayas have the highest hydro-electric potential in the country because
a. Availability of water

b.    High rate of fall
c.    Formation of Gorges
d.    None
ANSWER: b. High rate of fall
108. Arunachal Himalayas is inhabited by numerous ethnic tribes. Identify those tribes
I.    Monpa
II.    Lepcha
III.    Dafla
IV.    Nishi
a.    I and II only
b.    I,III and IV only
c.    II and III
d.    All
ANSWER: b. I,III and IV only
109.All the following are fundamental rights guaranteed by the Indian constitution except—
(A)    The right to equality
(B)    The right against exploitation
(C)    The right to adequate means of livelihood
(D)    The right to freedom of religion
110. The total number of members in the legislative council of a state cannot exceed—
(A)    One-fourth of the total numbers in the legislative Assembly
(B)    One-third of the total number of members of the legislative five assembly
(C)    One-sixth of the total number of members of the legislative Assembly
(D)    No such limit has been fixed

111.    Sikkim was made an integral part of India under the—
(A)    42nd Amendment
(B)    40th Amendment
(C)    39th Amendment
(D)    36th Amendment
112.    The maximum strength of the Lok Sabha is—
(A)    500
(B)    525
(C)    542
(D)    552
113.    How many language have been recognised by the constitution ?
(A)    13
(B)    18
(C)    15
(D)    22
114.    The number of Anglo-Indians who can be nominated by the President to the Lok Sabha is—
(A)    2
(B)    3
(C)    4
(D)    5

115.    Money bills can be introduced in the state legislature with the prior consent of—
(A)    The Speaker
(B)    The Chief Minister
(C)    The Governor
(D)    The President
116.    To be eligible for election as President of India a person must have completed the age of—
(A)    35 years
(B)    40 years
(C)    30 years
(D)    25 years
117.    Which of the following states/union territories has a Legislative Assembly consisting of only 30
members ?
(A)    Puducherry
(B)    Mizoram
(C)    Goa
(D)    All the above
118.    The Attorney General of India is appointed by—
(A)    Chief Justice of India
(B)    The Prime Minister
(C)    The President of India
(D)    The UPSC
119.    The President of India can nominate to the Rajya Sabha—

(A)    6 members
(B)    9 members
(C)    12 members
(D)    15 members
120.    Which of the following states/union territories have a common High Court ?
(A)    Uttar Pradesh and Bihar
(B)    Punjab and Jammu and Kashmir
(C)    Punjab, Haryana and Chandigarh
(D)    Assam and Bengal
121.    The most controversial amendment passed during the emergency was—
(A)    43rd
(B)    41st
(C)    42nd
(D)    44th
122.    The Union Cabinet is responsible to—
(A)    The Rajya Sabha and the Lok Sabha
(B)    The President of India
(C)    The Lok Sabha only
(D)    The electorate
123.    The Governor of a state in India is—
(A) Directly elected by the people of the state

(B)    Appointed by the Prime Minister
(C)    Appointed by the President
(D)    Appointed by the State Chief Minister
124.    The total number of members of legislative council can in no case be less than—
(A)    40
(B)    60
(C)    50
(D)    No minimum strength has been fixed
125.    The right to vote in India is given to all people on the basis of—
(A)    Education
(B)    Age
(C)    Property
(D)    Religion
126.    The maximum strength of the Legislative Assembly of a state is—
(A)    450
(B)    500
(C)    400
(D)    525
127.    Parliamentary system in India has been borrowed from which country ?
(A)    America
(B)    Britain

(C)    Australia
(D)    Ireland
128.    How many members of Rajya Sabha are nominated by the President ?
(A)    12
(B)    15
(C)    10
(D)    20
129.    Which of the following is not a Fundamental Right ?
(A)    Right against exploitation
(B)    Equal pay for equal work
(C)    Equality before law
(D)    Right to freedom of religion
130.    Panchyati Raj is organised at the—
(A)    Block level
(B)    Village and block level
(C)    Village, block and district level
(D)    Village, block, district and state level
131.    Which of the following courts is responsible for the enforcement of Fundamental Rights ?
(A)    Supreme Court
(B)    High Court
(C)    District Court

 (D) Both (A) and (B) above
132.    Consider the following statements—
1.    In Part IX of the constitution of India, there is no provision of reservation for women in any seat to be filled by direct election in every Panchayat.
2.    The Eleventh schedule of the constitution of India distributes power between the state legislature and the panchayat just as the seventh schedule distributes powers between the union of India and the states.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(A)    1 only
(B)    2 only
(C)    Both 1 and 2
(D)    Neither 1 nor 2
133.    Consider the following statements–
1.    The Governor of a state may reserve a Bill for consideration of the President of India.
2.    The Governor of a state is competent to withdraw an ordinace issued in the state at any time. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

(A)    1 only
(B)    2 only
(C)    Both 1 and 2
(D)    Neither 1 nor 2
134.    Consider the following statements—
1. In the Parliamentary system of India. If the President of India returns a Bill for reconsideration of the Houses; and both the Houses pass the Bill again without any amendment and the Bill is again presented to the President, the President has the power to with hold his assent from the Bill.

2. As per the constitution of India the union council of ministers is responsible both to the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(A)    1 only
(B)    2 only
(C)    Both 1 and 2
(D)    Neither 1 nor 2
135.    The well-known case of Keshavananda Bharti vs The state of Kerala related to which one of the
following issues ?
(A)    Acquiring private land for Government use
(B)    Exploitation of women at work place
(C)    Basic feature of the constitution of India
(D)    Reservation of jobs for the OBCs in the Government service
136.    Assertion (A) : In the Indian system, the executive cannot impose any tax without legislative
Reason (R) : It is expressly laid down by our constitution that no tax can be imposed unless it is authorised by an appropriation Act.
Codes :(A) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A
(B)    Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(C)    A is true but R is false
(D)    A is false but R is true
137.    Consider the following statements—
1. The design of the National flag of India was adopted by the Constituent Assembly on 22nd July, 1947.

2. The National Anthem was first sung on 27th December, 1911 at the Calcutta Session of Indian National Congress.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(A)    1 only
(B)    2 only
(C)    Both 1 and 2
(D)    Neither 1 nor 2
138.which country has its parliament fully operationalized by solar power system ? a.USA b.india c.germany d.pakistan
139. Who is the secretary general of UNO ? a. kofi annan b.ban ki moon c.antinio guterus d.none of the above
140.recently india acquired the memmebership of MTCR .what is the no of india ? a.32 b.33 c.34 d.35
141.13th euro-asian   conference happened at b.delhi c.bankok
142.    which is the 189th country of IMF AND world bank? a.nauru b.phelestiene c.south sudan d.croatia
143.    Thomas cup is related with?
144.    Average growth in Bihar’s economy at constant prices (adjusting for inflation) witnessed   a growth (%) in the year 2010-2015 a.5.2 b.6.8 c.7.9 d.10.4
145.which sector of bihar has seen maximum growth from 2010-2015 a.agriculture b.manufacturing c.service d.dairy
146. The agriculture sector employed what percentage of the state’s (bihar) population a.52 b.64

147.which district is a major producer of cauliflower?
148.which of the following art form depicts   snake pictures ?
a.pal kala
b.manjusha art
c.madhuabni painting
d.pahari painting
149. balmikinagar tiger reserve is in the district of?
150.which river joins ganga from the southward?
b.budhi gandak

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